Is The Scripture About Men Providing Old Or New Testament Premarital Sex, A Sin?

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Premarital Sex, A Sin?

The Bible was written mainly in two languages: Hebrew (Old Testament) and Greek (New Testament). But we English speakers must rely on interpretations of what scripture says based on the translations used to define the terms. Unfortunately, many of the translations of these terms are significantly removed from the exact meaning of the original words. Then we have new versions of the Bible that are even more removed from the original text giving the reader a completely different interpretation of the meaning of the scripture.

Hebrew and Greek have precise meanings of the words they define. If the translations of these terms are not as accurate as the original words used, they lead to misinformation and a lack of understanding of God’s word, and brand new doctrines emerge that are contrary to God’s original intent.

The other aspect of this is taking the translation of terms out of historical context. If God is giving us information in precise terms within the historical context in which it was written, and you change the meaning of the words through mistranslation without considering its historical context, you change the whole dynamic of that part of scripture and thus evolve strange teachings that form the “traditions of the people”.

Take for example the following passage of scripture:

“There shall be no harlot among the daughters of Israel, nor sodomist among the sons of Israel.” – Deuteronomy 23:17-18

What will she say? Using our language to decipher this part of scripture and not examining it with the historical context in which it was written, you would think it says “no woman can be a harlot who is a daughter of Israel and no man can be a homosexual who is a son of Israel,” right?

But this is not the correct interpretation. The reason is because the term “whore” and the deadline “sodomite” are not correctly translated from the Hebrew.

How do you know which is the correct definition? “whore” AND “sodomite” are they? You will have to look up the Hebrew word for it. And the best place is Strong’s Numbers. Strong’s numbers are an indication of each word in the original Bible text.

Strong’s numbers for “whore” in Hebrew it is H6948 and the word is DYCWis pronounced Ked-ay-shaw’ and means “female prostitute of the temple, harlot”

Strong’s number for “sodomite” it’s H6945 and the word is YCWis pronounced Kaw-dashe’ and means “male prostitute in the temple”.

So now, we have the corrected passage as follows:

“There shall be no (prostitute in the temple) of the daughters of Israel, nor (male prostitute in the temple) of the sons of Israel.” – Deuteronomy 23:17-18

Do you see the difference? And it also makes more sense within the historical context in which it was written. It’s not about whores in general or homosexuals.

If you were to take the first translation of this part of scripture, you would think that God did not want any prostitutes or homosexuals in Israel. But the second and more accurate translation specifically states that there will be no temple prostitutes. Why only temple prostitutes and not all prostitutes? Well, you find that in the historical context it was written in it. Deuteronomy 23 dealt with the instructions for the assembly of the congregation of Israel and various laws. And temple prostitutes are a form of pagan idolatry.

But whores themselves under certain conditions were not considered abominable to God. In fact, many of the great men of the Bible went “to whores” without consequence, as long as they were not married.

This raises the question of why sex before marriage is not a sin. We are all used to it. We even see the term fornication (Sexual intercourse between partners who are not married to each other) used over 40 times in the New Testament, in which the Apostle Paul tells us to “flee from fornication.” But guess what? Fornication is a substitution of the original Greek word, por · nei’a.

por · nei’a has a broader definition than fornication and means “sexual immortality”. But what is sexual immorality? According to God, all sexually immoral sins are defined in Leviticus 18. You must remember that the New Testament was not written until many years after the death of Jesus. So to find the laws about anything, the Apostle Paul would go back to the Torah. And premarital sex is not part of the definition of por · nei’a.

Nowhere in the scriptures is sex before marriage (outside of virgins in their father’s house) mentioned as a sin or sexual immorality. This doctrine has come about by misrepresenting the truth based on the wrong substitution of terms, or by not examining the historical context and the Old Testament to see what God reveals about it.

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